CCNA Quiz Solved Answers:

1 Consider the configured access list. 

R1# show access-lists 
extended IP access list 100 
deny tcp host 10.1.1.2 host 10.1.1.1 eq telnet 
deny tcp host 10.1.2.2 host 10.1.2.1 eq telnet 
permit ip any any (15 matches) 

What are two characteristics of this access list? (Choose two.)

  • Only the 10.1.1.2 device can telnet to the router that has the 10.1.1.1 IP address assigned.
  • The access list has been applied to an interface.
  • A network administrator would not be able to tell if the access list has been applied to an interface or not.
  • The 10.1.2.1 device is not allowed to telnet to the 10.1.2.2 device.
  • Any device on the 10.1.1.0/24 network (except the 10.1.1.2 device) can telnet to the router that has the IP address 10.1.1.1 assigned.
  • Any device can telnet to the 10.1.2.1 device.

2Which password type uses a Cisco proprietary Vigenere cypher encryption algorithm and is considered easy to crack?

  • type 5
  • type 7
  • type 8
  • type 9

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4 Refer to the exhibit. The ACL statement is the only one explicitly configured on the router. Based on this information, which two conclusions can be drawn regarding remote access network connections? (Choose two.)The exhibit displays the following configuration command on router R1:R1 (config) # access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 192​.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22 log

4The exhibit displays the following configuration command on router R1:R1 (config) #access-list 101 permit tcp 192.168.1.0  0.0.0.255 192​.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22 logRefer to the exhibit. The ACL statement is the only one explicitly configured on the router. Based on this information, which two conclusions can be drawn regarding remote access network connections? (Choose two.)

  • SSH connections from the 192.168.1.0/24 network to the 192.168.2.0/24 network are blocked.
  • SSH connections from the 192.168.1.0/24 network to the 192.168.2.0/24 network are allowed.
  • SSH connections from the 192.168.2.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network are allowed.
  • Telnet connections from the 192.168.1.0/24 network to the 192.168.2.0/24 network are allowed.
  • Telnet connections from the 192.168.1.0/24 network to the 192.168.2.0/24 network are blocked.
  • Telnet connections from the 192.168.2.0/24 network to the 192.168.1.0/24 network are allowed.

The graphic shows configuration commands on R1:R1(config)#enable secret level 15 LetMe1n2R1(config)#username ADMIN privilege 15 secret Pa$$w0rDR1(config)#aaa new-modelR1(config)#tacacs-server host 192.168.100.250 single-connection key authen-tacacsR1(config)#radius-server host 192.168.100.252 key authen-radiusR1(config)#aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ enableR1(config)#aaa authentication login AUTHEN group radius local enableR1(config)#line vty 0 15R1(config-line)#login authentication AUTHENR1(config-line)#line con 0R1(config-line)#login authentication defaultR1(config-line)#endR1#Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures AAA authentication on R1. When the administrator tests the configuration by telneting to R1 and no ACS servers can be contacted, which password should the administrator use in order to login successfully?

  • Pa$$w0rD
  • LetMe1n2
  • authen-tacacs
  • authen-radius

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Which threat protection capability is provided by Cisco ESA?

  • spam protection
  • cloud access security
  • Layer 4 traffic monitoring
  • web filtering

The exhibit shows the following commands:zone security OUTSIDEdescription OUTSIDE Zone used for Internet Interface!ip access-list extended ACL-ICMPpermit icmp any any any!class-map type inspect match-any CLASS-SELF-TO-OUTSIDE-INSPECTmatch access-group name ACL-ICMP!policy-map type inspect POLICY-SELF-TO-OUTSIDEclass type inspect CLASS-SELF-TO-OUTSIDE-INSPECT!zone-pair security SELF-TO-OUTSIDE source self destination OUTSIDEservice-policy type inspect POLICY-SELF-TO-OUTSIDE!interface GigabitEthernet 0/2zone-member securityword of the command omittedRefer to the exhibit. Which zone-member security command keyword will complete the ZBFW configuration when applied to the GigabitEthernet 0/2 interface?

  • ACL-ICMP
  • POLICY-SELF-TO-OUTSIDE
  • OUTSIDE
  • CLASS-SELF-TO-OUTSIDE-INSPECT

A company plans to deploy the Postman application as a tool to manage network devices. Which two security related best practices should be considered? (Choose two.)

  • User accesses must be authenticated to make API calls.
  • A dedicated instance for development should be used to ensure that device configurations are valid.
  • AAA service should be deployed for user authorization.
  • An SSH connection should be used to connect to the Postman application.
  • ACLs should be used to verify and filter different types of RUSTFul API calls.

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13 A network administrator is configuring MST on switch SW1 with the commands:SW1(config)# spanning-tree mode mstSW1(config)# spanning-tree mst 12 root primaryWhat is the effect after the command is entered?

13A network administrator is configuring MST on switch SW1 with the commands: 

SW1(config)# spanning-tree mode mst 
SW1(config)# spanning-tree mst 12 root primary 

What is the effect after the command is entered?

  • The bridge priority on switch SW1 is set to 28672 for MST instance 12.
  • The bridge priority on switch SW1 is set to 24576 for MST instance 12.
  • The bridge priority on switch SW1 is set to 20480 for MST instance 12.
  • The bridge priority on switch SW1 is set to 32768 for MST instance 12.

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14The exhibit shows the output of the command show bgp ipv4 unicast | begin Network: R2# show bgp ipv4 unicast | begin NetworkNetwork Next Hop Metric LocPrf Weight Path * 10.12.1.0/24 10.12.1.1 0 0 65100 i  *> 0.0.0.0 0 32768 i   *> 10.15.1.0/24 10.12.1.1 0 0 65100 ?  *> 192.168.1.1/32 10.12.1.1 0 0 65100 i   *> 192.168.2.2/32 0.0.0.0 0 32768 i  *> 192.168.3.3/32 10.12.1.1 3584 0 65100 i  *> 192.168.4.4/32 10.12.1.1 0 0 65100 i *> 192.168.5.5/32 10.12.1.1 11 0 65100 ?Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show bgp ipv4 unicast | begin Networkcommand to check the routes in the BGP table. What does the symbol at the end of a route indicate?

  • The route is redistributed into BGP.
  • The route is learned through a static route.
  • The route is originated from a connected network to the router.
  • The route is the best route for the network prefix.

A large shopping mall is planning to deploy a wireless network for customers. The network will use a lightweight AP topology. The network designers are considering the roaming by wireless clients. Which statement describes a difference between Layer 2 roaming and Layer 3 roaming?

  • Layer 2 roaming does not require communicating to a WLC through CAPWAP, whereas Layer 3 roaming does.
  • Layer 2 roaming occurs between two APs configured with the same VLAN and IP subnet, whereas Layer 3 roaming occurs between two APs configured with different VLANs and IP subnets.
  • Layer 2 roaming occurs between two APs that are bound to the same WLC, whereas Layer 3 roaming occurs between two APs that are bound to different WLCs.
  • Layer 2 roaming does not require the client to contact a DHCP server, whereas Layer 3 roaming requires the client to contact a DHCP server.

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17 What are two advantages of using multiple OSPF areas? (Choose two.)

17What are two advantages of using multiple OSPF areas? (Choose two.)

  • DR/BDR elections are not required.
  • They permit configuration of route summarization.
  • They allow for unequal cost load balancing.
  • All areas share an identical link-state database.
  • The link-state database is a more manageable size.

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19The exhibit shows partial output after the commandshow spanning-tree mst interface gigabitEthernet 1/0/1is entered on SW2:GigabitEthernet1/0/1 of MST0 is root forwardingEdge port: no 	  (default)  port guard : none    (default)Link type: point-to-point (auto) 	 bpdu filter: disable (default)Boundary : internal 		 bpdu guard : disable (default)Bpdus sent 17, received 217Instance Role Sts Cost  Prio.Nbr Vlans mapped-------- ---- --- --------- -------- ---------------------------0        Root FWD 20       128.1    1-9,11-19,21-98,100-40941        Root FWD 20000 128.1    10,202        Root FWD 20000   64.1    99Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the MST configuration on the switch SW2 with the command: 

SW2# show spanning-tree mst interface gigabitEthernet 1/0/1 

Which three conclusions can be drawn based on the output? (Choose three.)

  • The gigbitEthernet 1/0/1 port does not connect to another switch that is out of the region.
  • SW2 does not support the BPDU filter feature.
  • The priority value of the gigbitEthernet 1/0/1 port is adjusted for the instance 2.
  • The gigbitEthernet 1/0/1 port connects to the internet through a WAN connection.
  • SW2 does not support the BPDU guard feature.
  • The cost value of the gigbitEthernet 1/0/1 port is adjusted for IST.
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20What is a function of IGMP snooping?

  • updating receiver applications to filter out unwanted traffic
  • learning and maintaining multicast group memberships
  • updating static MAC entries on ports that should receive multicast traffic from certain sources or groups
  • restricting multicast packets for IP multicast groups that have downstream receivers

21Two switches, SW1 and SW2, are interconnected with two cables. SW1 Gi0/1 connects to SW2 Gi0/1 and SW1 Gi0/2 connects to SW2 Gi0/2. There are two boxes showing the configuration commands.Box 1 shows the following information:SW1(config)#interface gigabitEthernet 0/1SW1(config-if)#switchport mode trunkSW1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSW1(config-if)#exitSW1(config)# interface gigabitEthernet 0/2SW1(config-if)#switchport mode trunkSW1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSW1(config-if)#exitSW2(config)#interface port-channel 1SW1(config-if)#switchport mode trunkSW1(config-if)#endBox 2 shows the following information:SW2(config)#interface gigabitEthernet 0/1SW2(config-if)#switchport mode trunkSW2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode desirableSW2(config-if)#exitSW2(config)#interface gigabitEthernet 0/2SW2(config-if)#switchport mode trunkSW2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode desirableSW2(config-if)#exitSW2(config)#interface port-channel 1SW2(config-if)#switchport mode trunkSW2(config-if)#endRefer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel link between two switches, SW1 and SW2. Which statement describes the effect after the commands are issued on SW1 and SW2?

  • The EtherChannel is established without negotiation.
  • The EtherChannel is established after SW1 initiates the link request.
  • The EtherChannel is established after SW2 initiates the link request.
  • The EtherChannel fails to establish.

22An OSPF router is forming an adjacency with a neighbor and sends the neighbor an OSPF DBD packet describing the contents of its link-state database. During which OSPF neighbor state does the router send the packet?

  • 2-Way
  • exchange
  • attempt
  • loading

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23 Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are listed beneath each interface. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?The exhibit shows 4 switches named S1, S2, S3, and S4. S1 Gi0/2 port is connected to S3 Gi0/1 port. S3 Gi0/2 port is connected to S4 Gi0/2 port. S4 Gi0/1 port is connected to S2 Gi0/2 port. S2 Gi0/1 port is connected to S1 Gi0/1 port. All switches have port priority 128. S1 has priority 24576 and MAC address 000A00333333. S2 has priority 32768 and MAC address 000A00222222. S3 has priority 32768 and MAC address 000A00111111. S4 has priority 36864 and MAC address 000A00111110.

Refer to the exhibit. Spanning-tree port priorities are listed beneath each interface. The network administrator enters the spanning-tree vlan 1 root primary command on S4. What is the effect of the command?

  • Port priority makes Gi0/2 on S1 a root port.
  • S4 is already the root bridge, so there are no port changes.
  • S2 Gi0/1 becomes a nondesignated port because Gi0/2 has a lower path cost to S4.
  • S3 Gi0/2 transitions from designated port to root port because of path cost changes caused by the root change.
  • Spanning tree blocks Gi0/1 on S3 to prevent a redundant path from S1.

24. Network users complain that the network is running very slowly. Upon investigation, a network technician discovers 100% link utilization on all the network devices. Also, numerous syslog messages are being generated that note continuous MAC address relearning. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

  • Keepalives are expected but do not arrive.
  • The dynamic routing protocol has not yet converged the network.
  • A Layer 2 STP looping condition is present.
  • An incorrect encapsulation has been configured on one of the trunks that connect a Layer 2 device to a Layer 3 device within the affected segment.
  • The routing protocol has been misconfigured and a routing loop is evident.

25What is a characteristic of the PortFast feature?

  • PortFast can only be used for STP host ports.
  • A trunk port can be configured with PortFast if it connects to a hypervisor host.
  • PortFast prevents alternative ports from becoming designated ports.
  • PortFast enables a Cisco Catalyst switch to move a port into blocking state when an attached workstation link comes up.

26The exhibit shows three routers labeled R1, R2, and ISP. From top down, R1 and R2 are enclosed in a cloud. They are connected through a serial link. Inside the cloud, there is a label “BGP AS 65100”. Both R1 and R2 use a serial link to connect to the router ISP. An arrow points to R1 from ISP. A label “Preferred path” is next to the arrow.Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator in autonomous system 65100 has set up a dual-homed BGP connection with an ISP. The administrator would like to ensure that all traffic from the ISP enters the autonomous system through the router R1. Which BGP attribute can the administrator configure on routers R1 and R2 to accomplish this?

  • local preference
  • aggregate
  • weight
  • next-hop
  • multiple-exit discriminator

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27 Refer to the exhibit. SW1 is the root bridge and SW2 is the backup root bridge. An administrator wants to prevent SW4 and SW5 from ever becoming root bridges, but still allow SW2 to maintain connectivity to SW1 via SW3 if the link connecting SW1 to SW2 fails. On which two ports in this topology should the administrator configure root guard to accomplish this? (Choose two.)The exhibit shows 5 switches named SW1, SW2, SW3, SW4, and SW5. The SW1 MAC address is 0062.ec9d.c500. The SW2 MAC address is 0081.c4ff.8b00. The SW3 MAC address is 189c.5d11.9980. The SW4 MAC address is 70df.2f22.b880, and the SW5 MAC address is bc67.1c5c.9300. SW1 is connected to SW2 and SW3. SW2 is also connected to SW3 and SW4. SW3 is also connected to SW5. SW4 is also connected to SW5. The SW1 Gi0/2 port (designated port) is connected to the SW2 Gi0/1 port (root port). The SW1 Gi0/3 port (designated port) is connected to the SW3 Gi0/1 port (root port). The SW2 Gi0/3 port (designated port) is connected to the SW3 Gi0/2 port (blocked port). The SW2 Gi0/4 port (designated port) is connected to the SW4 Gi0/2 port (root port). The SW3 Gi0/5 port (designated port) is connected to the SW5 Gi0/3 port (root port). The SW4 Gi0/5 port (designated port) is connected to the SW5 Gi0/4 port (blocked port). The SW4 Gi0/6 port (designated port) is connected to the SW5 Gi0/5 port (blocked port).

27The exhibit shows 5 switches named SW1, SW2, SW3, SW4, and SW5. The SW1 MAC address is 0062.ec9d.c500. The SW2 MAC address is 0081.c4ff.8b00. The SW3 MAC address is 189c.5d11.9980. The SW4 MAC address is 70df.2f22.b880, and the SW5 MAC address is bc67.1c5c.9300. SW1 is connected to SW2 and SW3. SW2 is also connected to SW3 and SW4. SW3 is also connected to SW5. SW4 is also connected to SW5. The SW1 Gi0/2 port (designated port) is connected to the SW2 Gi0/1 port (root port). The SW1 Gi0/3 port (designated port) is connected to the SW3 Gi0/1 port (root port). The SW2 Gi0/3 port (designated port) is connected to the SW3 Gi0/2 port (blocked port). The SW2 Gi0/4 port (designated port) is connected to the SW4 Gi0/2 port (root port). The SW3 Gi0/5 port (designated port) is connected to the SW5 Gi0/3 port (root port). The SW4 Gi0/5 port (designated port) is connected to the SW5 Gi0/4 port (blocked port). The SW4 Gi0/6 port (designated port) is connected to the SW5 Gi0/5 port (blocked port).Refer to the exhibit. SW1 is the root bridge and SW2 is the backup root bridge. An administrator wants to prevent SW4 and SW5 from ever becoming root bridges, but still allow SW2 to maintain connectivity to SW1 via SW3 if the link connecting SW1 to SW2 fails. On which two ports in this topology should the administrator configure root guard to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

  • SW2 Gi0/4 port toward SW4
  • SW4 Gi0/6 port toward SW5
  • SW5 Gi0/3 port toward SW3
  • SW3 Gi0/5 port toward SW5
  • SW4 Gi0/2 port toward SW2

28. Which two OSPFv3 LSA types are used to advertise IPv6 prefixes to neighbors? (Choose two.)

  • LSA type 4 – interarea router
  • LSA type 5 – AS-external
  • LSA type 7 – NSSA
  • LSA type 8 – link-local LSA
  • LSA type 9 – intra-area prefix LSA
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29The exhibit consists of the following: Switch_2#show spanning-tree vlan 10VLAN0010  Spanning tree enabled protocol ieee   Bridge ID  Priority    24586  (priority 24576 sys-id-ext 10)             Address     000C.8533.5044             Hello Time  2 sec  Max Age 20 sec  Forward Delay 15 sec             Aging Time  20Interface        Role Sts Cost      Prio.Nbr Type---------------- ---- --- --------- -------- --------------------------------Fa0/2            Desg FWD 19        128.2    P2pFa0/3            Desg FWD 19        128.3    P2pRefer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the bridge ID and the status of this switch in the STP election. Which statement is correct based on the command output?

  • The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to become the backup root bridge.
  • The STP instance on Switch_2 is failing due to no ports being blocked and all switches believing they are the root.
  • The STP instance on Switch_2 is using the default STP priority and the election is based on Switch_2 MAC address.
  • The bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to become the root bridge.

30Switches SW1 and SW2 connect via G0/1 ports as a trunk. SW1 has three hosts attached: Host A in VLAN 1, host C in VLAN 10, and host E in VLAN 30. SW2 has three hosts attached: Host B in VLAN 1, host D in VLAN 10, and host F in VLAN 30. The following output is provided:SW1#show running-configinterface g0/1switchport mode dynamic autoswitchport trunk encapsulation dot1qswitchport trunk native vlan 666___________________________________SW2#show running-configinterface g0/1switchport mode dynamic autoswitchport trunk encapsulation dot1qswitchport trunk native vlan 666Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?

  • Add the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.
  • Associate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.
  • Include a router in the topology.
  • Configure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.
  • Remove the native VLAN from the trunk.
  •  

31. Which function is provided by the Cisco SD-Access Architecture management layer?

  • It presents all information to the user on a centralized dashboard.
  • It interconnects all of the network devices, forming a fabric of interconnected nodes.
  • It delivers data packets to and from the network devices participating in SD-Access.
  • It provides all of the management subsystems for the management layer.

32. A network engineer has to decide between a Layer 2 Access Layer (STP-based) and a Layer 3 Access Layer (Routed access) campus design option. Which statement must be considered for a decision to be made?

  • The Routed access option offers easier troubleshooting than the STP-based option.
  • The Routed access option is the best cost-effective solution.
  • The STP based access option supports spanning VLANs across multiple access switches, whereas the Routed access option does not.
  • The STP based option does not require FHRP, whereas the Routed access option does.

33. Which SD-Access feature uses telemetry to enable proactive prediction of met work-related and security-related risks.

  • network automation
  • policy enforcement
  • network assurance and analytics
  • network virtualization

34What are the two main components of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)? (Choose two.)

  • adjacency tables
  • forwarding information base (FIB)
  • ARP tables
  • routing tables
  • MAC-address tables
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35What QoS category level is recommended as the best to be configured on a Cisco WLC for VoIP traffic?

  • gold
  • silver
  • bronze
  • platinum

36Which two statements are true about NTP servers in an enterprise network? (Choose two.)

  • There can only be one NTP server on an enterprise network.
  • NTP servers control the mean time between failures (MTBF) for key network devices.
  • NTP servers at stratum 1 are directly connected to an authoritative time source.
  • NTP servers ensure an accurate time stamp on logging and debugging information.
  • All NTP servers synchronize directly to a stratum 1 time source.
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37What is used to pre-populate the adjacency table on Cisco devices that use CEF to process packets? ​

  • the ARP table
  • the routing table
  • the FIB
  • the DSP

38The command ntp server 10.1.1.1 is issued on a router. What impact does this command have?

  • ensures that all logging will have a time stamp associated with it
  • determines which server to send system log files to
  • synchronizes the system clock with the time source with IP address 10.1.1.1
  • identifies the server on which to store backup configurations
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39Which three functions are performed at the distribution layer of the hierarchical network model? (Choose three.)

  • forwards traffic to other hosts on the same logical network
  • allows end users to access the local network
  • forwards traffic that is destined for other networks
  • provides a connection point for separate local networks
  • isolates network problems to prevent them from affecting the core layer
  • transports large amounts of data between different geographic sites

41Which characteristic is common to both Chef and Puppet?

  • Both have free open source versions.
  • Both use the push model for configuration management.
  • Both are Cisco proprietary.
  • Both function in a peer-to-peer model.
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42Which data format is expected by Cisco DNA Center for all incoming data from the REST API?

  • YAML
  • XML
  • HTTP
  • JSON

43. What are two characteristics of the Python programming language? (Choose two.)

  • It uses the & symbol to indicate that the interactive mode is ready to accept commands.
  • It requires a compiler to be installed.
  • It runs without conversion to machine-language.
  • It only runs in the interactive mode. 
  • The code is easy to read.
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44. Which Python function is used for console output?

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45 Refer to the exhibit. Which data format is used to represent the data for network automation applications? The graphic shows a piece of code:{“message”: “success”,”username”: “jsmith01″,”user_info”: {“First_name”: “John”,”Last_name”: “Smith”}}

  • HTML
  • JSON
  • XML
  • YAML

46. What term is used to describe the files that contain Python definitions and statements?

  • function
  • file
  • module
  • script

47Which three are components of puppet modules? (Choose three.)

  • recipes
  • pillars
  • templates
  • files
  • manifests
  • playbooks

48. When JSON data format is being used, what characters are used to hold objects?

  • double braces { }
  • double brackets [ ]
  • double colons : :
  • double quotations ” “

49. Which three functions are provided by the syslog logging service? (Choose three.)

  • retaining captured messages on the router when a router is rebooted
  • gathering logging information
  • distinguishing between information to be captured and information to be ignored
  • authenticating and encrypting data sent over the network
  • specifying where captured information is stored
  • setting the size of the logging buffer

50 Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output generated by the show monitor session 1 command, how will SPAN operate on the switch?The command output shown in the exhibit is as follows: S1# show monitor session 1 Session 1 Type: Local Session Source VLANs RX Only: 10 TX Only: 20 Destination Ports: Fa0/1 Encapsulation: Native Ingress: Disabled

50The command output shown in the exhibit is as follows: S1# show monitor session 1 Session 1 Type: Local Session Source VLANs RX Only: 10 TX Only: 20 Destination Ports: Fa0/1 Encapsulation: Native Ingress: DisabledRefer to the exhibit. Based on the output generated by the show monitor session 1 command, how will SPAN operate on the switch?

  • All traffic transmitted from VLAN 10 or received on VLAN 20 is forwarded to FastEthernet 0/1.
  • Native VLAN traffic received on VLAN 10 or transmitted from VLAN 20 is forwarded to FastEthernet 0/1.
  • Native VLAN traffic transmitted from VLAN 10 or received on VLAN 20 is forwarded to FastEthernet 0/1.
  • All traffic received on VLAN 10 or transmitted from VLAN 20 is forwarded to FastEthernet 0/1.

51 Which two types of probes can be configured to monitor traffic by IP SLA within a network environment? (Choose two.)

51 Which two types of probes can be configured to monitor traffic by IP SLA within a network environment? (Choose two.)

  • SNMP traps
  • website upload time
  • syslog messages
  • voice quality scores
  • packet loss

52 How is ERSPAN used for troubleshooting?

52How is ERSPAN used for troubleshooting?

  • to capture local network traffic on a switch and send a copy of it to a local port attached to a traffic analyzer
  • to capture network traffic on a remote switch and send a copy of it to the local switch through Layer 2 toward a local port attached to a traffic analyzer
  • to capture network traffic on a switch port and send it to a VLAN
  • to capture network traffic on a remote device and send it to the local system through Layer 3 toward a local port attached to a traffic analyzer

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53Which two statements describe items to be considered in configuring NetFlow? (Choose two.)

  • NetFlow consumes additional memory.
  • NetFlow can only be used if all devices on the network support it.
  • Netflow requires UDP port 514 for notification messages.
  • Netflow requires both management and agent software.
  • Netflow can only be used in a unidirectional flow.

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54 Refer to the exhibit. The total number of packet flows is not consistent with what is expected by the network administrator. The results show only half of the flows that are typically captured for the interface. Pings between the router and the collector are successful. What is the reason for the unexpected results?The output shows the results of the show ip flow cache and the show ip flow interface command on the router. Router# show ip cache flow <lt;igt;output omittedlt;/igt;> Protocol Total Flows Packets Bytes Packets Active(Sec) Idle(Sec) ——– Flows /Sec /Flow /Pkt /Sec /Flow /Flow TCP-FTP 8 0.0 871 40 3.4 1394.5 0.4 TCP-FTPD 8 0.0 872 40 3.4 1394.9 0.1 TCP-WWW 4 0.0 871 40 1.7 1393.3 1.1 TCP-SMTP 4 0.0 871 40 1.7 1393.3 1.4 TCP-other 16 0.0 871 40 6.8 1393.3 1.1 UDP-other 72 0.0 1 53 0.0 0.0 15.4 ICMP 10 0.0 871 427 4.3 1394.6 0.3 Total: 122 0.0 357 117 21.6 571.3 9.4 Router# show ip flow interface FastEthernet 0/0 ip flow ingress

54The output shows the results of the show ip flow cache and the show ip flow interface command on the router. Router# show ip cache flow &lt;lt;igt;output omittedlt;/igt;&gt; Protocol   Total   Flows   Packets   Bytes   Packets   Active(Sec) Idle(Sec) --------       Flows   /Sec   /Flow       /Pkt     /Sec        /Flow          /Flow TCP-FTP        8        0.0       871        40     3.4           1394.5         0.4 TCP-FTPD      8        0.0       872        40     3.4           1394.9         0.1 TCP-WWW    4        0.0       871        40     1.7           1393.3          1.1 TCP-SMTP     4       0.0        871        40     1.7           1393.3         1.4 TCP-other      16      0.0        871        40     6.8           1393.3         1.1 UDP-other      72     0.0         1           53     0.0              0.0          15.4 ICMP            10      0.0        871        427   4.3            1394.6         0.3 Total:            122     0.0       357        117    21.6           571.3          9.4  Router# show ip flow interface FastEthernet 0/0   ip flow ingressRefer to the exhibit. The total number of packet flows is not consistent with what is expected by the network administrator. The results show only half of the flows that are typically captured for the interface. Pings between the router and the collector are successful. What is the reason for the unexpected results?

  • Interface Fa0/0 is not configured as the source of the packets sent to the collector.
  • The router is not configured to monitor outgoing packets on the interface.
  • The Netflow collector IP address and UDP port number are not configured on the router.
  • The interface is shutdown.

55 A teacher is explaining the concept of virtual switch (vSwitch) to students in a classroom. What explanation accurately describe a vSwitch?

55A teacher is explaining the concept of virtual switch (vSwitch) to students in a classroom. What explanation accurately describe a vSwitch?

  • A vSwitch enables VMs to communicate with external physical networks through physical nework interface cards.
  • A vSwitch is a software-based Layer 3 switch that operates like a physical switch.
  • Multiple vSwitches can be created under a virtualized server, allowing network traffic to flow directly from one vSwitch to another within the same host.
  • A vSwitch is a cluster of switches forming a virtual switching system (VSS).

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56 Which technology is part of the Cisco ENFV and provides centralized and consistent network policies across enterprise branch offices?

56 Which technology is part of the Cisco ENFV and provides centralized and consistent network policies across enterprise branch offices?

  • Cisco ISE
  • Cisco DNA center
  • Cisco ENCS
  • Cisco UCS

57 What is an I/O technology that allows multiple VNFs to share the same pNIC?

57What is an I/O technology that allows multiple VNFs to share the same pNIC?

  • SR-IOV
  • PCI Passthrough
  • Open vSwitch
  • OVS-DPDK

58 What is a key difference between a virtual machine and a virtualized container?

  • A virtual machine contains its own OS and a virtualized container does not.
  • A virtual machine starts much faster than a virtualized container does.
  • A virtual machine requires a type 1 hypervisor and a virtualized container requires a type 2 hypervisor.
  • A virtual machine uses physical memory to run and a virtualized container uses virtualized memory.

59 Which vitualization component allows communication between VMs within a virtual server?

  • container engine
  • vSwitch
  • hypervisor
  • pNIC

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